FPSC Practice/Model Screening Test Paper 1 with all 200 Keys

Here, you will have FPSC Practice/Model Screening Test Paper 1 with all 200 Keys. If you are a serious CSS aspirant, I would suggest you print this Screening test without their answers. And check whether you are at the stage to get at least 50% marks in it. Give yourself an environment of the exam i.e 200min or solve it in 3hrs.
If you tested yourself and managed to get more than 100 marks out of 200 marks (50%) whereas passing criteria for MPT is 33% score.
You are good to go for your written exam preparation without the worries of the upcoming CSS Screening test. So, take it seriously, it will be a green signal for you to heed on your compulsory subjects with ease onwards.

 
Download FPSC Practice Screening Test 2022 Paper-1

So, download it from this FB Group link or From Google drive

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True that the actual Test would never be the same, however, if one touches each and every aspect of these questions and follow the same pattern especially in General Science and General Ability with solving CSS Exam MCQs Past Papers from 2005-2021.
Surely, S(he) will pass it with flying colours.

INSTRUCTIONS FOR CSS SCREENING TEST CANDIDATES

I. Candidates are informed that Answer Sheet comprises Two
Sheets (Pink & Blue). On conclusion of the examination Pink sheet is to be handed over to the
invigilating staff. Candidates are allowed to retain Blue sheet for checking their scores.
Answer Key will be uploaded on FPSC website on the eve of the examination.
II. Candidates are advised to;
(i) read MCQs from Questions Booklet and Fill in the appropriate box in the
Answer Sheet.
(ii) understand that, all MCQs have equal marks and there is no Negative Marking.
(iii) avoid writing Roll Number, Name, answers to the questions or any other remark(s) on or
inside Questions Booklet.
(iv) handover Questions Booklet and Pink Answer Sheet to the duty invigilator on
conclusion of examination.
(v) take/retain Blue Answer Sheet on conclusion of examination.
(vi) visit FPSC website for Answer Key which will be made available on the eve of examination.
(vii) avoid cutting / correction in the Answer Sheet. If candidate marks more than one
option it will be considered as a wrong answer.
(viii) Do not use lead pencil in the Answer Sheet. Use of ballpoint pen is advised. Avoid markers.

Note: Use of Calculator and electronic equipments such as Laptop, Mobile Phone / Cell phone,
Smart Watch, Bluetooth Devices, programmable devices and storage media like Pen drive
etc., during exam are STRICTLY PROHIBITED. Any infringement may lead to initiation of legal proceedings.

SECTION – I ISLAMIC STUDIES
(20 Marks)
FPSC Practice Screening Test MPT

1. Hajre-Aswad means:
A. Pious stone
B. Black stone
C. Foundation stone
D. None of these

2. The first revelation came to Prophet (SAWS) in:
A. Hira
B. Thaur
C. Dar-e-Arqam
D. None of these

3. Injeel (Bible) was revealed on the prophet:
A. Hazrat Esa (AS)
B. Hazrat Musa (AS)
C. Hazrat Dawood(AS)
D. None of these

4. Musaylimah was:
A. Philosopher
B. Poet
C. False prophet
D. None of these

5. Masjid-e-Nabvi is located in:
A. Taif
B. Madina
C. Makkah
D. None of these

6. Kharaj is:
A. Poor tax
B. Land tax
C. Poll tax
D. None of these

7. Hazrat Usman (RA) was Caliph.
A. 1st
B. 2nd
C. 3rd
D. None of these

8. Hazrat Ali (RA) was of Prophet Mohammad (SAWS)۔
A. Brother-in-law
B. Father
C. Son-in-law
D. None of these

9. The Holy Prophet (SAWS) migrated to Madina in which year:
A. 615 AD
B. 622 AD
C. 625 AD
D. None of these

10. Islamic calendar (hijra) commenced from:
A. 622 AD
B. 620 AD
C. 621 AD
D. None of these

11. Sura al-Nisa speaks of:
A. Wars
B. Mal-i-Ghanimat
C. The Jews
D. Women matters

12. Saifullah was the title of:
A. Hazrat Umar (RA)
B. Hazrat Usman (RA)
C. Hazrat Ali (RA)
D. Hazrat Khalid Bin Waleed (RA)

13. Sihah-e- Sittah are the books of:
A. Tafsir
B. Fiqh
C. Hadith
D. None of these

14. Turait was revealed to which Prophet:
A. Hazrat Dawood (AS)
B. Hazrat Esa (AS)
C. Muhammad (SAWS)
D. Hazrat Musa (AS)

15. How many Surahs are there in the Holy Quran?
A. 99
B. 114
C. 120
D. None of these

16. Battle of Badr was fought in the year:

A. 2 AH
B. 3 AH
C. 4 AH
D. None of these

17. Which was the first Muslim mosque?
A. Bait-ul-Maqdus
B. Masjid e Quba

C. Masjid e Nabvi
D. None of these
18. Which Surah is known as Heart of Quran?
A. Yaseen
B. Falaq

C. An-nas
D. None of these
19. Which is the 3rd Surah in Al-Quran?
A. Al-Maida
B. Aal-e-Imran

C. An-Nisa
D. None of these
20. How many fundamentals (Arkaan) are there in Islam?
A. 3
B. 2

C. 5
D. None of these

SECTION – II URDU
(20 Marks)

(20 Marks)
۔لکھیںظلفاافدامتر A.

قدصا 21.
زکباپا (D) رانتدیاد (C) سچ (B)
رانتدماا (A)
ظلم 22.
لمقتو (D) ممظلو (C) بتغر (B) یکیرتا
(A)
غبر 23.
اوکھاد (D) ہاخو (C) ئنما (B) تروضر (A)
لصاو 24.
پکا (D) محبت (C) نگایود (B) تقاملا
(A)
تسخی 25.
ناکرثرا (D) محبت (C) تقاملا (B)
فتح (A)
پخت 26.
نگایود (D) سستی (C) پکا (B) یتیز
(A)
عجل 27.
پکا (D) سستی (C) نگایود (B) یتیز
(A)
ہدز 28.
گربز (D) گیکیزپا (C) ترطہا (B) یتقو
(A)
ببذتذ 29.
بہمنصو (D) کراتد (C) بتاںجہا (B) شبوشک (A)
حمد 30.
نمتحاا (D) ئارآ (C) ئستا (B) ئمازآ
(A)
لفا 31.
۔نہیئیکومیںنا (D) محبت (C) تنفر (B)
ہنگیآہم (A)
B. Choose the Correct Option to complete each of the following sentence:
۔ہےنیکبھیناآ—–کےکسیمیںمصیبت 32.
۔نہیئیکومیںنا (D) گھر (C) مکا (B)
سپا (A)
۔ئیبتاجملہسترد 33.
۔ہےہارجاتاہوپتلامیںنبدندہو (B) ۔ہےہارجاتاہوپتلانبدندہو (A)

۔نہیئیکومیںنا (D) ۔ہےہارجاتاہوپتلازوبرزورہو (C)
۔یںکرہیندنشاکیجملےسترد 34.
.لونکانہںلیاگاکوکسی (B) .لونکامتںلیاگاکوکسی (A)
۔نہیئیکومیںنا (D) .ودمتںلیاگاکوکسی (C)
۔ہیںکہتےکیاسےاتوہومنفیاسرودروامثبلفظیکامیںجسجملہہو 35.
۔نہیئیکومیںنا (D) مبہااصفت (C) دتضاصفت (B) ہرستعااصفت
(A)
۔ہےلمثکیکسہےتاجاہوپتھکہیںروااہیکہیںننساا 36.
۔نہیئیکومیںنا (D) تمثیتشبیہ (C) جمتشبیہ (B)
فملفوتشبیہ (A)
۔ئیبتانثموکامہترلفظ 37.
۔نہیئیکومیںنا (D) یمہتر (C) نامہتر (B)
نمہتر (A)
ہےکیاممفہوکاساہےہرومحاناہوپاغاچر 38.
ہنراکھڑ (D) نٹنباںشیاخو (C) نابکھیرشنیور (B) کیفیکیغصے
(A)

Select the correct Translation

39.

(A) Is she sick? (B) Will he be sick?
(C) Was she sick? (D) None of these

؟تھاربیماہوکیا

40.
۔ہےرمشہوکیلئےتغابارہولا

Lahore was known for gardens.

(B) Lahore will be known for gardens.
Lahore were known for
gardens.

SECTION – III ENGLISH
Vocabulary, Grammar usage, Comprehension (50 Marks)

A. Select SYNONYMS of the following:
41. ARROGANT
A. Conceited
B. Humble
C. Progressive
D. None of these
42. ALERT
A. Intelligent
B. Energetic
C. Watchful
D. None of these
43. EMBEZZLE
A. Remunerate
B. Clear
C. Misappropriate
D. None of these
44. BRIEF
A. Small
B. Short
C. Little
D. None of these
45. NULLIFY
A. Annul
B. Select
C. Neglect
D. None of these
46. TARNISH
A. Polish
B. Sooth
C. Stain
D. None of these
47. NEEDLESS
A. Scanty
B. Unnecessary
C. Essential
D. None of these
48. CONSEQUENCE
A. Cause
B. Manner
C. Result
D. None of these
49. ABSTAIN
A. Continue
B. Refrain
C. Refuse
D. None of these
50. LETHARGY
A. Serenity
B. Laxity
C. Active
D. None of these
B. Select ANTONYMS of the following:
51. INTENSE
A. Calm
B. Pointed
C. Allow
D. None of these
52. FALSE
A. True
B. Defective
C. Incorrect
D. None of these
53. PROHIBIT
A. Allow
B. Outlaw
C. Failure
D. None of these
54. FOREMOST
A. Hindmost
B. Unimportant
C. Disposed
D. None of these
55. PROTECT
A. Defend
B. Deprive
C. Abandon
D. None of these
56. BEAUTIFUL
A. Wonderful
B. Graceful
C. Ugly
D. None of these
57. TERRIBLE
A. Soothing
B. Frightening
C. Scaring
D. None of these
58. WIDELY
A. Spaciously
B. Succinctly
C. Narrowly
D. None of these
59. ABLE
A. Disable
B. Unable
C. Enable
D. None of these
60. MIGHTY
A. Forcible
B. Forceful
C. Weak
D. None of these
C. Select the correct option:
61. ‘The only son of the village lord died yesterday.’ In the sentence, the subject is:
A. Son
B. The only son
C. The village lord
D. None of these
62. Which of the following sentence is CORRECT?
A. I told my brother I would go with him only if he wants me to.

B. I told my brother I would go with him only if he wants me.

C. I told my brother I would go with him only if he wanted me to.

D. None of these
63. Which of the following sentences is INCORRECT?
A. I was given a red-coloured tie by one of my friends

B. A red-coloured tie was give to me by one of my friends

C. One of my friend gave me a red-coloured tie.

D. None of these.
64. Which of the following sentences is INCORRECT?
A. Although it rained a lot, they enjoyed themselves.

B. It rained a lot, but they enjoyed themselves.

C. Despite of the rain, they enjoyed themselves.

D. None of these
65. Which of the following sentence is CORRECT?
A. Why industry and academia should collaborate to work on their programs?

B. Why academia and industry should work to collaborate on their programs?

C. Why industry and academia should work for the collaboration on their programs?

D. None of these
D. Read the paragraph and answer the questions that follow.
If you want to be a writer, you must learn to develop your own point of view. All good writers make us see things in a different light. You may be writing about the same thing as your classmates, but your presentation must reflect your personality and individuality. There are so many interesting subjects you can write about in different forms but here we will try to attempt writing short stories. There is a good market for the following types: the humorous stories, the adventurous stories, the domestic stories, the mysteries and stories related to animals and strange experiences. Don’t worry if your story turns out to be short. Some of the best stories are quite short. Be very careful about the climax or end of the story. It must be what the reader fears, desires, expects or best of all doesn’t expect. So, get down to it. Think of a plot-make points on how the story will progress and pen it down.
66. The most important thing about being a writer is that:
A. You must have a pen and paper
B. You must have a degree in writing

C. You must have a painful heart
D. You must learn to develop your own point of view
67. The narrator advises the reader to write in order to:
A. Earn a livelihood
B. Make him famous among his people

C. Show his intelligence to others
D. Encourage him to become a writer
68. Most of the people like to read:
A. Horror stories
B. Social stories

C. Love stories
D. Humorous and adventurous stories
69. A successful writer’s presentation must reflect:
A. His personality and individuality
B. His handwriting

C. His showy nature
D. His superiority to others
70. The phrase ‘pen it down’ here means:
A. To write
B. To writ
C. To throw the pen
D. To throw it down
E. Select the pair that best completes the sentence
71. The availability of oxygen is an essential for animal life, while carbon dioxide is equally for plant life.
A. choice, optional
B. duplication, selective

C. luxury, harmful
D. None of these
72. Bachelor’s reputation as novelist encouraged hopes that his political thriller would offer more characterizations than are usually found in the genre.
A. a serious, subtle
B. a prolific, accurate

C. a maturing, sweeping
D. None of these
73. The repeated breakdown of negotiations only the view that the two sides were not truly committed to the goal of a military confrontation.
A. established, escalating
B. reinforced, averting

C. undermined, avoiding
D. None of these
74. To the of those who in bygone years tiptoed their way past poinsettia displays for fear of causing leaves to fall, breeders have developed more versions of the flower.
A. dismay, fragrant
B. relief, durable

C. surprise, alluring
D. None of these
75. Fans who believe that the players’ motivations are not would be to learn that they now charge for their signatures.
A. self-serving, vindicated
B. atypical , disillusioned

C. altruistic, unsurprised
D. None of these
F. Choose the Correct Option to Complete the Sentence. (Answer to be marked in the Answer Sheet)
76. My brother was trembling cold?
A. from
B. with
C. of
D. by
77. Prime Minister has arrived Peshawar?
A. at
B. to
C. in
D. from
78. We congratulate you your achievement?
A. for
B. to
C. on
D. at
79. His application for a visa was turned by the consulate. ?
A. out
B. over
C. down
D. aside
80. She deprived her husband all he had?
A. with
B. to
C. of
D. from
G. Identify the Odd word
81. A. Canteen
B. Dancer
C. Stage
D. Makeup
82. A. Radium
B. Radio
C. Granite
D. Dynamite
83. A. Chess
B. Engineer
C. Layout
D. Blueprint
84. A. Petrol
B. Taxi
C. Cart
D. Driver
85. A. Court
B. Radium
C. King
D. Palace
H. Select the correct option
86. Which of the following sentences is CORRECT?
A. Payments can be made by cheque or in money

B. We need a nice and quiet place for a picnic.

C. We stopped by a large wood to admire the nature.

D. None of these
87. Which of the following sentences uses ‘across’ as a preposition?
A. Across the room, she see some old friends.

B. My neighbour came across to see me this morning.

C. The road was so busy that we found it difficult to get across.

D. None of these
88. Which of the following sentences is correct?
A. Despite of her sheer hard work, she failed.

B. Though I am sick but I will go to office.

C. Me and my friend often visit Islamabad.

D. None of these
89. ‘The sky was overcast.’ The expression implies that:
A. The sky was covered with clouds
B. The sky was shining brightly

C. The sky seemed spread across the horizon.
D. None of these
90. ‘Wearing a helmet when you do any dangerous sport is important.’ In the sentence, the subject is:
A. Helmet
B. You
C. Sport
D. None of these

SECTION – IV GENERAL ABILITIES
Basic Arithmetic, Algebra & Geometry; Logical Problem Solving & Analytical Abilities; Mental Abilities
(60 Marks)

91. The 40% of 60 is what number?
A. 12
B. 24
C. 16
D. None of these
92. Choose the answer which best completes the number pattern: 16, 24, ,40,48
A. 30
B. 32
C. 34
D. 36
93. If a plane flies 612 km per hour, how many kilometers will it travels in13 hours?
A. 8958
B. 7956
C. 7500
D. None of these
94. 232 people at a party decide to order pizza for a snack. If each pizza has 8 slices, how many pizzas should they order so that each person can have one slice?
A. 20
B. 21
C. 29
D. None of these
95. A new coat is regularly priced at $50. It is on sale with a discount of 10%. Approximately how much would be saved by purchasing the coat at the sale price?
A. $5.00
B. $10.00
C. $15.00
D. None of these
96. Calculate: (20 + 12)/20:
A. 1.6
B. 2.3
C. 2.8
D. None of these
97. Which of the following is equivalent to 10*0.00675?
A. 0.00675
B. 0.0675
C. 6.75
D. None of these
98. Jane answered all 50 questions on a test. If she scored 80% on the test, how many questions did she get wrong?
A. 40
B. 45
C. 10
D. None of these
99. Solve: $7.32 is 10% of what amount?
A. $19.10
B. $48.42
C. $73.20
D. None of these
100. If 5 liters of paint is required to cover 50 m2 of wall area, how many m2 of wall area could be painted with 10 liters?
A. 100
B. 115
C. 118
D. None of these
101. Evaluate the Expression: -1(4-5 * 6/2)
A. 3
B. 11
C. -11
D. 27
102. 75 * 10-2 = ?:
A. 75
B. -0.75
C. 0.75
D. 7500
103. A worker can complete a task in 24 days. If three more workers join him, in how many days the same task will be completed:
A. 4 days
B. 6 days
C. 8 days
D. None of these
104. Cost of three dozen eggs is Rs. 720. What is the cost of 5 eggs?
A. Rs 100
B. Rs 150
C. Rs 90
D. Rs 120
105. A train travels from point A to B at a speed of 100 Km/hour. How long it will take to travel 25 kilometers in hours.
A. 0.3
B. 0.25
C. 0.5
D. 0.2
106. A car takes 3 hours to cover a distance of 360 Km. What distance will it cover in 40 minutes?
A. 100 Km
B. 75 Km
C. 80 Km
D. None of these
107. The number 8 900 021 in words is:
A. Eight million, nine thousand, twenty one

B. Eight million, ninety thousand, twenty one

C. Eight million, nine hundred thousand, twenty one

D. None of these
108. What is the value of z in equation z = 7x(y2) when x = 4 and y = 2:
A. 56
B. 112
C. 116
D. None of these
109. If -4x + 5y is subtracted from 3x + 2y then the answer will be:
A. 3x + 6y
B. 2x + 5y
C. 7x – 3y
D. x + 3y
110. The answer of addition of 3x and 2y is:
A. 2x + 3y
B. 3x – 2y
C. (3x)( 8y)
D. 3x + 2y
111. The product of 4 and -3b is:
A. 12b
B. −12b
C. 3b
D. −3b
112. On evaluating the algebraic expression -3(4s – 2t) – 4(2s + 3t), the answer will be:
A. − (20s + 6t)
B. −6s + 20t
C. 21s – 7t
D. 23s + 8t
113. The sum of 5x + 3y and 4x – 2y is:
A. 5x – 8y
B. 9x + y
C. 8x + 4y
D. 6x + 5y
114. If a = 20, b = 35 and c = 5 then (4a + b)⁄c is:
A. 23
B. 115
C. 53
D. 43
115. If a = 2, b = 4 and c =3 then 2ac[(2b + 3c)-c] is:
A. 11
B. 51
C. 168 (D)12
116. By solving the expression 4[3s – 2(6s – 8)], the answer will be:
A. 12s -16
B. 16s – 12
C. -(36s – 64)
D. 16s + 12
117. By solving the algebraic expression 2(3m -4n +5) -3(2m -3n +4), the answer should be:
A. m + 2
B. n – 2
C. 3m + n – 3
D. n + 2
118. If x = 5, y = 3 and z = 2 then xz (4y – 2z) is:
A. 10
B. 80
C. 8
D. 116
119. The algebraic form of the statement “sum of the product of 2a and 2b and product of 12x and 2y” is:
A. 4ab + 24xy
B. 24ab + 4xy
C. 4ab + 12x + 2y
D. 2a + 2b +24xy
120. The algebraic expression of word expression “subtract eight times of the number b from ten times of the number c” is:
A. 2bc
B. 8b – 10c
C. 8c – 10b
D. 10c -8b
121. In 15y and 160ab, the coefficients are:
A. ab
B. ab, y
C. 15, 160
D. None of these
122. Sum of 3a and 5b is written as:
A. 3a-5b
B. 3a+ (-5b)
C. 3a+5b
D. None of these
123. Simplify the expression: x7y2 / x4y
A. x3y2
B. x3y
C. xy2
D. x11y3
124. How many sides of a square are equal?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 3
D. None of these
125. A polygon having 5 sides is called:
A. Pentagon
B. Hexagon
C. Tetragon
D. Decagon
126. A line going through the midpoint from one side to the other side of a circle is called:
A. angle
B. area
C. radius
D. diameter
127. Sum of angles of a circle is:
A. 360°
B. 180°
C. 270°
D. 90°
128. Angles are measured in which unit:
A. degrees
B. cm
C. km
D. inches
129. 900Angle is known as:
A. acute angle
B. reflective angle
C. obtuse angle
D. right angle
130. Angles that are greater than 180° and less than 360° are called:
A. reflex angles
B. obtuse angles
C. acute angles
D. right angles
131. 18, 28, 40, 54, 70, ?
A. 79
B. 88
C. 93
D. 97
132. 120, 99, 80, 63, 48, 35, ?
A. 24
B. 25
C. 26
D. 27
133. 24, 28, ?, 52, 84:
A. 32
B. 34
C. 36
D. 40
134. 4832, 5840, 6848, 7856, ?
A. 7910
B. 7915
C. 8812
D. 8864
135. 100, 200, 310, 430, ?
A. 506
B. 512
C. 560
D. 566
136. 54, 44, 36, ?, 26
A. 28
B. 29
C. 30
D. 31
137. 15, 30, 45, 60, ?
A. 65
B. 70
C. 72
D. 75
138. 5, 25, ?, 625, 3125
A. 25
B. 150
C. 300
D. 125
139. 2, 10, 40, 120,?
A. 120
B. 180
C. 220
D. 240
140. 50, 45, 40, 35, ?, ?
A. 30, 25
B. 25, 20
C. 20, 15
D. 15, 10
141. A, P, R, X, S and Z are sitting in a row. S and Z are in the center. A and P are at the ends. R is sitting to the left of A. Who is to the right of P?
A. A
B. X
C. S
D. Z
Read the following information carefully and then answer the questions (Q.No142 to 145) based on it:
There is a family of six persons P, Q, R, S, T and U. Their professions are Engineer, Doctor, Teacher, Salesman, Manager and Lawyer.
(i) There are two married couples in the family.
(ii) The Manager is the grandfather of U, who is an Engineer
(iii) R, the Salesman, is married to the lady Teacher
(iv) Q is the mother of U and T.
(v) The Doctor, S is married to the Manager.
142. How many male members are there in the family?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Data inadequate
D. Four
143. What is the profession of P?
A. Lawyer
B. Lawyer or Teacher
C. Manager
D. None of these
144. Who are the two married couples in the family?
A. PQ and SR
B. PS and RQ
C. PT and SR
D. None of these
145. How P is related to T?
A. Father
B. Grandfather
C. Mother
D. Grandmother
Read the following information carefully and then answer the questions (Q.No146 to 150) based on it:
(i) P, Q, R, S, T and U are six members of a family. Out of six members three are male members.
(ii) There are two married couples among them
(iii) R is the father of P and U, and T is the mother of R
(iv) P is the grand-daughter of Q
146. How is U related to P?
A. Sister
B. Son
C. Daughter
D. Brother
147. How Q is related to U?
A. Brother
B. Grandfather
C. Husband
D. None of these
148. Which of the following pairs is one of the married couples?
A. TU
B. QS
C. TQ
D. None of these
149. Which of the following is a group of male members?
A. Q, S, T
B. P, U, Q
C. Q, R, U
D. None of these
150. Who is the husband of T?
A. Q
B. R
C. U
D. None of these

SECTION – V GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
Everyday Science, Current Affairs, Pakistan Affairs (50 Marks)

151. All of the following organs in the human body are located both on the right and the left sides, except:
A. Lungs
B. Kidneys
C. Spleen
D. Eyes
152. Chemical composition of Laughing gas is:
A. Nitrogen + Hydrogen
B. Nitrogen + Oxygen

C. Nitrogen + Carbon
D. None of these
153. Light year is related to:
A. Energy
B. Speed
C. Distance
D. None of these
154. What is the longest bone in the human body?
A. Femur
B. Arm
C. Leg
D. None of these
155. Which one part of the donor’s eye is utilized in eye donation?
A. Cornea
B. Lens
C. Retina
D. None of these
156. Iodine does not react with:
A. Sulphur
B. Fluorine
C. Nitric Acid
D. None of these
157. Excessiveness of which vitamin is resulting in clotting of blood?
A. Vitamin K
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin A
D. None of these
158. Which one of the following colors has the shortest wavelength?
A. Red
B. Yellow
C. Black
D. Blue
159. The Sun is a:
A. Planet
B. Star
C. Asteroid
D. None of these
160. Where is blood formed in the human body?
A. Bone Marrow
B. Liver
C. Heart
D. None of these
161. Neurology is the branch of medicine concerned with the study and treatment of?
162.
163.
164. Short-Sightedness can be corrected by?
A. Convex-Concave lenses
B. Concave lens

C. Convex lens
D. None of these
165. The lifespan of white blood cells ranges from?
A. 13 to 20 days
B. 12 to 15 days

C. 14 to 18 days
D. None of these
166. Neutron was discovered by:
A. Robert Hooke
B. Charles Darwin

C. James Chadwick
D. None of these
167. hosted Conference on Dialogue of Asian Civilizations on May 15th 2019:
A. China
B. Bhutan
C. Japan
D. None of these
168. Which country’s parliament has declared climate change emergency on 1st May 2019?
A. Japan
B. Norway
C. UK
D. None of these
169. The process in which a heavy nucleus split into two lighter one is called:
A. Beta Decay
B. Gamma Decay
C. Nuclear Fission
D. None of these
170. The shortest wavelength for audible sound is:
A. 1.7 cm
B. 0.7 cm
C. 0.6 cm
D. None of these
171. Who was the first Prime Minister of Pakistan?
A. Quaid-e-Azam
B. Liaqat Ali Khan
C. Saad Hariri
D. None of these
172. IMF headquarters is located in:
A. USA
B. Germany
C. France
D. None of these
173. The Headquarters of FATF is located in:
A. India
B. Japan
C. France
D. None of these
174. Narendra Modi took oath as the Prime Minister of India for a second term in the year:
A. 2017
B. 2019
C. 2021
D. None of these
175. Where is the site Kekra?
A. Gawader
B. Pasni
C. Karachi
D. None of these
176. Kazakhstan officially renames capital Astana as in honor of Nazarbayev.
A. Kozlov
B. Nur-sultan
C. Massimov
D. None of these
177. The first ever meeting between North Korean Leader Kim Jong Un with US President Donald Trump was held in:
A. Singapore
B. North Korea
C. Vietnam
D. None of these
178. First Female Ambassador of Saudi Arabia to US is:
A. Nadia Baeshen
B. Princess Rima bint Bandar

C. Sarah Ayed bent Mohammed Al Ayed
D. None of these
179. Meeting of Foreign Ministers of member states of Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO)-Afghanistan contact group was held on July 14th 2021in .
180.
181. 4th June is observed as:
A. World Health Day
B. World Environment Day

C. World Happiness Day
D. None of these
182. Which of following, Space agency has announced to open its International Space Station for commercial business to accelerate a thriving commercial economy of its country?
A. Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency ( JAXA )
B. NASA

C. ISRO
D. None of these
183. Which is the first country to approve Oxford AstraZeneca’s Covid-19 Vaccine?
A. UK
B. Russia
C. China
D. None of these
184. Pakistan is in the list of FATF:
A. Black
B. Grey
C. Red
D. None of these
185. Diamer-Bhasha Dam is being built on:
A. Indus River
B. Jhelum River
C. Chenab River
D. None of these
186. British Airways resumed operations to Pakistan after a period of?
A. 6 years
B. 8 years
C. 11 years
D. None of these
187. Nadir Shah invaded India during the reign of:
A. Muhammad Shah
B. Bahadur Shah
C. Shah Alam
D. None of these
188. In the Provincial elections of 1946 Muslim League won how many seats?
A. 492
B. 498
C. 425
D. None of these
189. Who requested Napoleon for help to drive the British out of India?
A. Shivaji
B. Jai Singh
C. Tipu Sultan
D. None of these
190. Which pass connects Chitral with Afghanistan?
A. Dorah pass
B. Bolan pass C) Khojak pass
D. None of these
191. Ruins of Harapa are situated in:
A. Lahore
B. Okara
C. Sahiwal
D. None of these
192. 3rd June Plan was announced by:
A. Redcliff
B. Mountbatten
C. Jawahar Lal Nehru
D. None of these
193. Which Movement in India started in response of Shuddi and Sangahtan Movement of Hindus.
A. Tablighi Movement
B. Jehad Movement

C. Tabligh and Tanzim
D. None of these
194. Who was the Head of Nehru Report Committee?
A. Moti Lal Nehru
B. Jawahar Lal Nehru

C. Mahtma Gandhi
D. None of these
195. Under Legislative Councils Act of 1861, _ could issue ordinances for Government of British India in emergency.
A. Secretary of State
B. Viceroy of India
C. Governor-General
D. None of these
196. Governor of a province is considered as:
A. Administrative Chief
B. Constitutional Head
C. Judicial Chief
D. None of these

197. Operation “Swift Resort” was launched by:

A. USA against Afghanistan 
B. Pakistan against India
C. India against Pakistan
D. None of these

198. Who has signed Pakistan Tax Amnesty Scheme Ordinance 2019?
A. President Arif Alvi
B. PM Imran Khan
C. Abdul Hafeez Shaikh
D. None of these

199. Ehsaas programme is a social safety and prgramme launched by Government of Pakistan in March 2019:
A. Industrial development
B. Poverty alleviation
C. Agricultural development
D. None of these

200. What is the full name of Pakistan’s own satellite PRSS?
A. Public Radio Satellite System
B. Pakistan Remote Systematic Sensing
C. Pakistan Remote Sensing Satellite
D. None of these

Answers Keys for FPSC Practice/Model Screening Test Paper I

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