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CSS 2022 Solved MPT MCQs | FPSC CSS Screening Test Past Paper MCQs

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Here, you will have CSS 2022 Solved with Answer keys MPT MCQs. FPSC CSS Screening 2022 Test Original Paper MCQs which was conducted by FPSC today dated (20/02/2022). So, If you are a serious CSS aspirant, I would suggest you practice this CSS MPT 2022 Screening Test Original Paper MCQs without their answers. And check whether you are at the stage to get at least 50% marks in it. Give yourself an environment of the exam i.e 200min or solve it in 3hrs. The Pdf download file of these CSS Screening Test 2022 with answer keys can be found at the end of this post.

If you tested yourself and managed to get more than 100 marks out of 200 marks (50%) whereas passing criteria for MPT is a 33% score.
You are good to go for your written exam preparation without the worries of the CSS Screening test. So, take it seriously, it will be a green signal for you to heed on your compulsory subjects with ease onwards.

CSS MPT 2022 Screening Test Original Paper MCQs

Before going to the solution of css screening test 2022, it is recommended to observe these MCQs one by one. Try to solve the CSS MCQ based Preliminary test (MPT) first. However, you can find the solved MCQs of CSS Screening Test Today/MPT screening Test For CSS 2022 at the end of this article. Where you can also download in PDF the CSS MPT 2022 Screening Test Original Paper MCQs with solution answer keys.

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CSS 2022 MCQ Based Preliminary Test (MPT) Solved Paper with Answer keys

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1. Which of the following is the longest Surah of the Holy Qur’an?

A. Surah Yaseen
B. Surah Rehman
C. Surah Al-Baqara
D. None of these

2. Which term is used for the longest Ayah (Verse) of the Holy Qur’an?

A. Ayat-e-Mubahala
B. Ayat-e-Mudayana
C. Ayat-e-Madina
D. None of these

3. What is the title of Tafseer (Commentary) written by Mufti Muhammad Shafi?

A. Ma’arif-ul-Quran
B. Tafheem-ul-Quran
C. Fahm-ul-Quran
D. None of these

4. What are Hanafi, Maliki, Shaf’I and Hanbali?

A. Creed based doctrines
B. Fiqhi doctrines
C. Kalami doctrines
D. None of these

5. The Nisab of Zakat in Gold is:

A. 7^1/2 tola
B. 52^1/2 tola
C. 7 tola
D. None of these

6. To which country did Prophet Muhammad (SAW) have his first business trip?

A. Taif
B. Ethiopia
C. Syria
D. None of these

7. What was the real name of Imam Abu Hanifa?

A. Sabit bin Nauman
B. Muhammad bin Nauman
C. Nauman bin Sabit
D. None of these

8. What type of Prayer is Namaz-e-Janaza?

A. Sunnah
B. Farz-e-Mukkad
C. Farz-e-Kifaya
D. None of these

9. What is the distance required for ‘Qasr’ in Prayer?

A. 58 km
B. 85 km
C. 78 km
D. None of these

10. How many clauses did the treaty of Hudaybiyyah contain?

A. 7
B. 5
C. 3
D. None of these

11. What is the literal meaning of ‘Ijma’?

A. Struggle
B. Consensus
C. To guess
D. None of these

12. What is meant by ‘Sila-e-Rahmi’?

A. Boycott
B. Ties of Kinship
C. Generosity
D. None of these

13. What is the alternative name of ‘Ghazwa-e-Khandaq’?

A. Ghazwa-e-Ahzab
B. Ghazwa-e-Hunain
C. Ghazwa-e-Khyber
D. None of these

14. In how many Ghazwas did the Prophet Muhammad (S.A.W) participate?

A. 27
B. 17
C. 37
D. None of these

15. The first-ever international treaty in Islamic history is known as:

A. Hilf-ul-Fuzool
B. Baia’t-e-Rizwan
C. Treaty of Madina
D. None of these

16. What is the name of the Islamic Constitutional Organization of the government of Pakistan?

A. Pakistan Sharia Council
B. Islamic Ideology Council
C. Islamic Economic Council
D. None of these

17. What is ‘Rabbi Zidni Ilma’?

A. Hadith
B. Asar
C. Qur’anic verse
D. None of these

18. The wealth/property left by the deceased is called?

A. Taraka
B. Sadaqa
C. Asaba
D. None of these

19. For how long did the Prophet Muhammad (S.A.W) and his companion remain in the siege in Shi’ab-e-Abi-Talib?

A. One year
B. Two years
C. Three years
D. None of these

20. Who was the first caliph in the Umayyad dynasty?

A. Hazrat Muawiyah (RA)
B. Hazrat Usman (RA)
C. Hazrat Umar bin Abdul Aziz (RA)
D. None of these

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[SORRY URDU MCQs 21-40 are excluded due its fonts, Please Study them from the Images] Image 1 & Image 2

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41. The settlers found an ideal location with plenty of ___ land for forming and a mountain stream for fresh water and irrigation.

A. Candid
B. Quaint
C. Arable
D. Saline

42. What is most needed in a discussion of immigration are solid facts, not wishful thinking; realities, not?

A. Fears
B. Ideas
C. Myths
D. Veracities

43. The defendant claimed that he was innocent and that his confession was:

A. Flagrant
B. Coerced
C. Terse
D. Benign

44. The rebel spies were charged with ___ and put on trial.

A. Attrition
B. Reiteration
C. Sedition
D. Perdition

45. Zachary was doomed to a miserable life, for no matter how much he had, he always ___ the possessions of others.

A. Protracted
B. Exalted
C. Coveted
D. Filibustered

Read the following passage and choose the best suitable option for the question/statements.

Glaciers consist of fallen snow that compresses over many years into large, thickened ice masses. Most of the world’s glacial ice is found in Antarctica and Greenland, but glaciers are found on nearly every continent, Even Africa. Presently, 10% of the land area is covered with glaciers. Glacial ice often appears blue because the ice absorbs all other colors but reflects blue. Almost 90% of an iceberg is below water, only about 10% shows above water. What makes glaciers unique is their ability to move. Due to sheer mass. Glaciers flow like very slow rivers. Some glaciers are as small as football fields, whereas others grow to be over 100 kilometers long.
Within the past 750,000 years, scientists know that there have been eight Ice Age cycles, separated by warmer periods called an interglacial period. Currently, the earth is nearing the end of an interglacial, meaning that another Ice Age is due in a few thousand years. This is part of the normal climate variation cycle. Greenhouse warming may delay the onset of another glacial era, but scientists still have many questions to answer about Climate change. Although glaciers change very slowly over long periods, they may provide important global climate change signals.
The girth of ice, combined with gravity’s influences, causes glaciers to flow very slowly, once a mass of compressed ice reaches a critical thickness of about 18 meters thick, it becomes so heavy that it begins to deform and move. Ice may flow down mountains and valleys, fan across plains, or spread out to sea. Movement along the underside of a glacier is slower than movement at the top due to the friction created as it slides along the ground’s surface.
Most glaciers are found in remote mountainous areas. However, some found near cities or towns present a danger to the people living nearby. On land, lakes formed on top of a glacier during the melt season may cause floods. At the narrow part of a valley glacier, ice falling from the glacier presents a hazard to hikers below. When the ice breaks off over the ocean, an iceberg is formed.
Glaciers are a natural resource and contain 75% of the world’s freshwater. People worldwide are trying to harness the power of these frozen streams. Some towns rely on glacial melting from a nearby ice cap to provide drinking water. Some farmers spread soil or ashes over the snow to promote melting, hoping that the melting will provide water to irrigate crops in drought-stricken areas. Others have channeled meltwater from glaciers to their fields. Scientists and engineers have worked together to tap into glacial resources, using electricity that has been generated in part by damming glacial meltwater.

46. According to paragraph 4, what is a negative effect of living too close to a glacier?
A. The mass of the glacier reaches a critical thickness.
B. About 10% of a glacier shows above water.
C. Spreading dark material over snow promoted melting.
D. Lakes formed on top of glaciers may cause floods.

47. The underlines word remote, as used in paragraph 4 of the passage, most nearly means:

A. Isolated
B. Nearby
C. Slow Traveling
D. Difficult to see

48. The passage explains that glaciers can be found where?

A. Only on Antarctica
B. Only Greenland and Alaska
C. On nearly every continent
D. On the north and south poles

49. According to the passage, why does glacial ice often appear blue?

A. Because it does not absorb the color blue
B. Because it absorbs all other colors but reflects blue
C. Because it does not absorb all other colors including blue
D. Because it is blue in color

50. After reading the passage, what can one conclude about glaciers?

A. There will not be another Ice Age coming
B. Glacier have both negative and positive effect on human life
C. Scientists have difficulty studying glaciers
D. Scientists have minimal data on the formation of glaciers

51. After reading the passage, what can one infer about glaciers?

A. Further exploration is needed to tap the power of glacial ice in fuelling electric energy
B. With variations in climate, glaciers shrink and expand
C. Glaciers form in cold regions where the rate of snowfall is greater that the melting rate of snow
D. Glaciers are usually bordered at the sides by rock debris

Choose an option that is correct according to the standard use of English.

52.

A. A noise woke me up in the middle of the night
B. Noise woke me up in the middle of the night
C. A noise woke me up at the middle of the night
D. A noise woke me up on the middle of the night

53.

A. A cup of tea is hanging on the hook in the kitchen
B. A tea cup is hanging over the hook in the kitchen
C. A teacup is hanging on the hook in the kitchen
D. A tea’s cup is hanging on the hook in the kitchen

54.

A. Our friend has an apartment toward East London
B. Our friends has an apartment on East London
C. Our friend has an apartment in the East London
D. Our friend has an apartment in East London

55.

A. The doctor told him to give up smoking
B. The doctor told him giving up smoking
C. The doctor told him to give up smoke
D. The doctor told him to give away smoking

56.

A. We look forward to going Lahore in evening
B. We look forward to going Lahore in the evening
C. We look forward to go Lahore on the evening
D. We look forward to go Lahore in the evening

57.

A. He gave me all the maps free
B. He gave me all the maps freely
C. He gave me all the maps to free
D. He gave me all the maps in free

58.

A. In France the death penalty was abolished in 1981
B. In France the death penalty has been abolished in 1981
C. In France the death penalty has been abolished on 1981
D. In France the death penalty was abolished on 1981

59.

A. On page 3, there is an advertisement of a new video camera
B. On page 3, there is an advertisement about a new video camera
C. On page 3, there is an advertisement for a new video camera
D. On page 3, there is an advertisement of new video camera

60.

A. We do not afford to eat in restaurants nowadays
B. We cannot afford to eat in restaurants nowadays
C. We do not afford eat-in restaurants nowadays
D. We do not afford to eating in restaurants nowadays

61.

A. The Japanese couple on the back of the coach was obviously newly-weds
B. The Japanese couples at the back of the coach were obviously newly-weds
C. The Japanese couples at the back of the coach was obviously newly-weds
D. The Japanese couple in the back f the coach was obviously newly-weds

62.

A. A cat can see in the darkness
B. The cat can see in the darkness
C. Cats can see in the darkness
D. A cat can see into the darkness

63.

A. This is the only one of his poems that is worth reading
B. This is the only one of his poems that are worth reading
C. This is the only one of his poem that are worth reading
D. This is the only one of his poems that is worth read

64.

A. Trees help to create a peaceful surrounding
B. Trees help to create a peaceful surroundings
C. Trees help to create peaceful surroundings
D. Trees help to create a peaceful surrounding

65. Choose the sentence with an adverb.

A. Don’t talk so loud
B. He lives in the next house
C. He is quick to take offense
D. The night is dark

66. Choose the sentence with the proper Adjective.

A. French wines are not available here
B. He showed much patience
C. He has lost all his wealth
D. I ate some rice

67. Choose the sentence with the Adverb of time.

A. I have spoken to him already
B. He seldom comes here
C. The horse galloped away
D. The boy works hard

68. In the sentence “Ambition urges me forward”, forward is:

A. An Adverb of place
B. An Adjective place
C. An Adverb of time
D. An Adjective of time

69. In the sentence “Children love making mud castles”, making is:

A. Verb
B. Main Verb
C. Gerund
D. Both a & b

70. The sentence ‘The earth is larger than the moon’, than is:

A. Subordinating Conjunction
B. Coordinating Conjunction
C. Not a conjunction
D. Both a & B

71. In the sentence “Such was not my intention”, such is:

A. Pronoun
B. Adjective
C. Conjunction
D. All of these

Fill in the blanks with the correct option.

72. Ambition does not always conduce ____ultimate happiness.

A. Of
B. In
C. To
D. From

73. The holidays will begin ___ June 29.

A. On
B. From
C. In
D. With

74. Send this letter ___ my address.

A. To
B. On
C. At
D. Towards

75. He accepted the car in lieu ___ his claim ___ Rs. 4, 55,000.

A. Of, Of
B. With, for
C. Of, For
D. With, of

In each of the following questions, a pair of words or phrases is separated by a colon (:) follows four related pairs of words or phrases. Select the lettered pair that best expresses the relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair.

76. CONVICTION: INCARCERATION

A. Reduction: diminution
B. Induction: intimidation
C. Radicalization: estimation
D. Marginalization: intimidation

77. FROND: PALM

A. Quill: porcupine
B. Blade: evergreen
C. Scale: wallaby
D. Tusk: alligator

78. SPY: CLANDESTINE

A. Accountant: meticulous
B. Furrier: rambunctious
C. Lawyer: Ironic
D. Shepherd: garrulous

79. FERAL: TAME

A. Rancid: rational
B. Nettlesome: annoying
C. Repentant: honorable
D. Ephemeral: immortal

80. DOLLAR: DIME

A. Saleswoman: Pitch
B. Retreat: Victory
C. Century: Decade
D. Ring: Necklace

Choose the option that is closest in meaning to the word provided.

81. SUMPTUOUS

A. Delirious
B. Gorgeous
C. Perilous
D. Luxurious

82. SACROSANCT

A. Prayer
B. Sanctuary
C. Pious
D. Sacred

83. CHURLISH

A. Childish
B. Boorish
C. Tempestuous
D. Disorderly

84. WINDOW

A. Carve
B. Wind
C. Weed
D. Carry

85. MORDANT

A. Dead
B. Gruesome
C. Fetid
D. Caustic

Choose the option that is most nearly opposite of word provided.

86. SARTORIAL

A. Cheerful
B. Sincere
C. Inelegant
D. Homespun

87. SAPIENT

A. Hunched
B. Strong
C. Simple
D. Simian

88. MATUTINAL

A. Paternal
B. Crepuscular
C. Maritime
D. Marsupial

89. GUMPTION

A. Seriousness
B. Apathy
C. Levity
D. Despair

90. OBTUSE

A. Slim
B. Acute
C. Opaque
D. Thick

91. Find the percentage of 0.001:

A. 1
B. 0.1
C. 0.01
D. None of these

92. Find the answer of the series (-3) x (-3) x (-3):

A. -3
B. 27
C. -27
D. None of these

93. What is the square root of -25:

A. 5
B. -5
C. -2.5
D. None of these

94. Let x = -4x + 4, the value of x will be:

A. 4/5
B. 5/4
C. -4/3
D. None of these

95. If the sum of all 10 values in the data set are 10, then what will be the average:

A. 1
B. 5
C. 10
D. None of these

96. Let (x^1/2) x(x^-1/2), then find the correct answer:

A. 0
B. 1
C. -1/4
D. None of these

97. Let (-2x)³, then find the correct answer:
A. 8x
B. -8x
C. -8x³
D. None of these

98. Let (x/2)-(x/4) = 2 then find the correct answer:

A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. None of these

99. Let x^2/3 = 64, then find the value of x:

A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. None of these

100. The angle made by two lines is called?

A. Segment
B. Vertex
C. Rays
D. None of these

101. A polygon that consists of 8 sides is called?

A. Nonagon
B. Decagon
C. Octagon
D. None of these

102. A measure of angle which is the complement of itself is called?

A. 30°
B. 45°
C. 90°
D. None of these

103. A triangle has ___ vertices.

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. None of these

104. The sum of three angles of an isosceles triangle is:

A. 90°
B. 180°
C. 360°
D. None of these

105. How many endpoints are in a line?

A. No endpoints
B. One endpoint
C. Two endpoints
D. None of these

Notice: A line segment has two endpoints. However, a line has no end point.

106. Which of the following is the longest chord of a circle?

A. Radius
B. Diameter
C. Circumference
D. None of these

107. How many sides does a Pentagon have?

A. Five
B. Seven
C. Eight
D. None of these

108. A Figure whose all four sides are equal is called?

A. Rectangle
B. Square
C. Circle
D. None of these

109. Sometimes we give a statement in favour of another statement, which is called?

A. Argument
B. Premises
C. Conclusion
D. None of these

110. Knowledge of children based on memory process is called?

A. Learning
B. Strategy
C. Metamemory
D. None of these

111. in which memory, all materials are stored so that we can retrieve them later on:

A. Short term memory
B. Long term memory
C. Sensory memory
D. None of these

112. Who introduced the term “Intelligence Quotient” (I.Q)?

A. William Stern
B. A.R Jensen
C. R.B Cattell
D. None of these

113. Sometimes we think about the beauty of Heaven, what we call it:

A. Imagination
B. Concept Formation
C. Fantasy
D. None of these

114. What is the last stage of creative thinking?

A. Preparation
B. Verification
C. Evaluation
D. None of these

115. Short-term memory lasts only:

A. 5-10 seconds
B. 10-15 seconds
C. 20-30 seconds
D. None of these

116. Give a name of the range which an individual can make between the weakest and the loudest sounds:

A. Sensory range
B. Pitch range
C. Dynamic range
D. None of these

117. Decibel (dB) is the unit that can be used to measure the:

A. Sensation
B. Intensity of Sound Pressure
C. Vision
D. None of these

118. Let a Mental Age (MA) and Chronological Age (CA) are given then “Intelligence Quotient” (I.Q) is:

A. MA-CA
B. MA/CA
C. CA/MA
D. None of these

119. (i) The bulb X lasts longer than bulb Y. (ii) The bulb F does not last longer than bulb Z. (iii) The bulb Z lasts longer than bulb x. if the statements (i) and (ii) are true, then the statement (iii) is:

A. True
B. False
C. Uncertain
D. None of these

120. (i) Passing CSS examination gives happiness, (ii) Happiness produces a smile. (iii) Passing CSS examination gives smile. If the statement (i) and (ii) are true, then the statement (iii) is:

A. True
B. False
C. Uncertain
D. None of these

121. (i) A toothpaste is useful. (ii) Useful things are valuable. (iii) toothpaste is valuable. If the statements (i) and (ii) are true, then the statement (iii) is:

A. True
B. False
C. Uncertain
D. None of these

122. To pack 100 pairs of shoes into cases that each holds 20 shoes, then how many cases do we need?

A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. None of these

123. The total number of cubic blocks is 50. To construct a solid cube with none left over, what will be the minimum numbers that need to be taken?

A. 21
B. 22
C. 23
D. None of these

124. In the following series 12, 11, 13, 12, 14, 13…..what number should come next?

A. 13
B. 14
C. 15
D. None of these

125. In the following series 2, 1, (1/2), (1/4) … what number should come next?

A. 1/3
B. 1/8
C. 1/16
D. None of these

126. Which of the following option does not belong to a “book”?

A. Glossary
B. Project
C. Chapter
D. None of these

127. Which of the following option does not belong to a “bird”?

A. Wing
B. Rudder
C. Beak
D. None of these

128. Which of the following option is a necessary part of “harvest”?

A. Crop
B. Tractor
C. Stockpile
D. None of these

129. Give the name of the USB part which exists in all modern computers?

A. Universal Service Broadcasting
B. Universal Serial Bus
C. Uniform Service Broadcasting
D. None of these

130. “Dear Money” is used for?

A. Low rate of Interest
B. High rate of Interest
C. Value of money
D. None of these

131. Give the name of the term “SPM” which is often used in the study of pollution?

A. Solid Particulate Matter
B. Sulfur Particulate Matter
C. Suspended Particulate Matter
D. None of these

132. Which of the following option is a necessary part of “School”?

A. Learning
B. Student
C. Report Card
D. None of these

133. My wife and I have two sons. Each son has one sister. How many members are in the family?

A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. None of these

134. A farmer has 10 cows. All cows died except four. How many cows are left?

A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. None of these

135. What does “SAT” stand for?

A. Scholar Assessment Test
B. Scholastic Assessment Test
C. Scholarship Assessment Test
D. None of these

136. “SAT” is useful to judge the:

A. Predicting Future
B. Fairness and objectiveness
C. Genius and Gifted
D. None of these

137. Pictogram is appropriate for data:

A. Fraction
B. Count
C. Interval
D. None of these

138. Pie-Chart suitable to divide the components of factor in:

A. Sectors
B. Percentage
C. Angles
D. None of these

139. If we add a constant 3 to each observation of a data set then find the mean:

A. Increased by 3
B. Decreased by 3
C. No Effect
D. None of these

140. If three observations are 5, 5, and 5 then the arithmetic mean is:

A. 5
B. 10
C. 0
D. None of these

141. If the minimum value in a set is 5 and its range is 50m then the maximum value of a set is:

A. 47
B. 55
C. 50
D. None of these

142. The probability can take values:

A. -1 to +1
B. -∞ to +∞
C. 0 to 1
D. None of these

143. The mean of 5 observations is 10. A new observation 10 is added, then mean of 6 observations is:

A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. None of these

144. Mean is a measure of:

A. Location
B. Dispersion
C. Variation
D. None of these

145. Which of the following plays a major role in reaction to stress?

A. Confidence
B. Emotions
C. Personality
D. None of these

146. In which of the following options we feel stress if we fail in CSS examination?

A. Physical
B. Mental
C. Social Sigma
D. None of these

147. Which of the following technique is useful to handle sensitive issues?

A. Random Response
B. Randomized Response
C. Physical Response
D. None of these

148. To clean the ice from the roads during the winter season, which of the following is used?

A. Chlorine
B. Slat
C. Iodine
D. None of these

149. Which of the planet moves slowest around the Sun?

A. Venus
B. Mercury
C. Jupiter
D. None of these

150. The life span of red blood cells in human is:

A. 120 days
B. 125 days
C. 130 days
D. None of these

151. How many fluids per day a man should use?

A. 2.7 liters
B. 3.7 liters
C. 4.7 liters
D. None of these

152. Vitamin A creates _____ deficiency in the human body.

A. Hair fall
B. Rickets
C. Night blindness
D. None of these

153. The waves which are used by the TV remote control are:

A. Infrared waves
B. Radio waves
C. TV waves
D. None of these

154. Which of the following gas is used in the Refrigerator for cooling?

A. Methane
B. Ammonia
C. Nitrogen
D. None of these

155. Which of the planet moves fastest around the Sun?

A. Venus
B. Mercury
C. Jupiter
D. None of these

156. Which instrument is used to measure the oxygen level of the blood?

A. Thermometer
B. Oximeter
C. Spirometer
D. None of these

157. Which type of vitamin is useful for the human body through Sun?

A. Vitamin B12
B. Vitamin A
C. Vitamin D
D. None of these

158. In which of the following country the Equator passes?

A. Pakistan
B. Malaysia
C. Kenya
D. None of these

159. Which of the following lens are useful in the microscope?

A. Convex lens
B. Concave lens
C. Curved lens
D. None of these

160. The instrument used to measure the rainfall is:

A. Barometer
B. Hydrometer
C. Nanometer
D. None of these

161. Which blood group is rare in the human body?

A. O
B. AB+
C. AB-
D. None of these

162. Which light is more important for photosynthesis?

A. Violet light
B. Red light
C. Greenlight
D. None of these

163. The instrument which is used to measure the blood pressure is called:

A. Spirometer
B. Barometer
C. Sphygmomanometer
D. None of these

164. The world is divided into how many time zones?

A. 12
B. 18
C. 24
D. None of these

165. Which of the following is the warmest ocean?

A. Indian Ocean
B. Pacific Ocean
C. Atlantic Ocean
D. None of these

166. Vitamin B exists in:

A. Fruit and Vegetables
B. Seeds
C. Sea-food
D. None of these

167. How many countries are declared nuclear powers?

A. 7
B. 8
C. 9
D. None of these

168. FATF stands for:

A. Financial Action Task Force
B. Federal Agency Task Force
C. Financial Authority Task Force
D. None of these

169. Washington DC is the _____ State of USA.

A. 48th
B. 49th
C. 50th
D. None of these

170. Which is the smallest country in the world?

A. Vatican City
B. Maldives
C. Monaco
D. None of these

171. Who is the founder of Wikipedia?

A. Julian Assange
B. Jimmy Wales
C. Bill Gates
D. None of these

172. ______ is known as the land of the rising sun.

A. Japan
B. Norway
C. Kenya
D. None of these

173. ______ will be the next leap year.

A. 2022
B. 2023
C. 2024
D. None of these

174. COP26 was held in which country?

A. UK
B. USA
C. France
D. None of these

175. The present speaker of Pakistan’s National assembly is:

A. Asad Qaisar
B. Asad Umar
C. Qasim Suri
D. None of these

176. As per IMF sources, Pakistan’s GDP would be ____ in the year 2022.

A. 3.96
B. 3.94
C. 3.92
D. None of these

177. The Upper house of the British Parliament is:

A. Senate
B. House of Lords
C. House of Commons
D. None of these

178. SAARC stands for:

A. South Asian Association for Regional Corporation
B. South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation
C. South Asian Association for Regional Council
D. None of these

179. OIC stands for:

A. Organization of Islamic Conference
B. Organization of Islamic Countries
C. Organization of Islamic Cooperation
D. None of these

180. Hamas is an Islamic organization working for the:

A. Liberation of Palestine
B. Liberation of Chechnya
C. Liberation of Kashmir
D. None of these

181. The Summit for Democracy was held in _____ in December 2021.

A. New York
B. London
C. Washington
D. None of these

182. The author of Governing the Ungovernable is:

A. Shuja Nawaz
B. Ishrat Hussain
C. Hassan Askari
D. None of these

183. FATA merged with KPK under ____ amendment to the Constitution of Pakistan.

A. 24^th
B. 25^th
C. 26^th
D. None of these

184. ______ is the only female Governor appointed in Pakistan.

A. Begum Rana Liaqat Ali Khan
B. Mohtarma Fatima Jinnah
C. Begum Jahan Ara Shahnawaz
D. None of these

185. National Identity card was introduced in Pakistan in:

A. 1973
B. 1974
C. 1976
D. None of these

186. Which rivers were given to India under Indus Water Treaty in 1960?

A. Jhelum, Sutlej, Ravi
B. Chenab, Beas, Ravi
C. Sutlej, Beas, Ravi
D. None of these

187. Mohtarma Benazir Bhutto became first time PM of Pakistan in:

A. October 1988
B. November 1988
C. December 1988
D. None of these

188. During the Ayub era, presidential elections were held in:

A. 1962
B. 1965
C. 1966
D. None of these

189. The head of the state in Pakistan is:

A. Prime Minister
B. President
C. Speaker NA
D. None of these

190. Lahore Resolution was passed in:

A. 1943
B. 1946
C. 1940
D. None of these

191. Who was the 2nd Prime Minister of Pakistan?

A. Ch. Muhammad Ali
B. Muhammad Ali Bogra
C. Khawaja Nazimuddin
D. None of these

192. Who became president after Ayub khan resigned?

A. Zulfiqar Ali Bhutto
B. Noorul Ameen
C. Muhammad Khan Junejo
D. None of these

193. Pakistan has ____ federating units.

A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. None of these

194. Pakistan became a member of the UN in:

A. 1947
B. 1948
C. 1949
D. None of these

195. Pakistan is situated in:

A. Southeast Asia
B. East Asia
C. South Asia
D. None of these

196. Pakistan has borders with _____ and _____.

A. Saudi Arabia, Iraq
B. China, Iran
C. Both A and B
D. None of these

197. The Single National Curriculum in Pakistan was implemented at the primary level in:

A. 2019
B. 2020
C. 2021
D. None of these

198. The Present Federal Minister of State for Climate Change in Pakistan?

A. Zartaj Gul
B. Amin Aslam
C. Zulfiqar Bukhari
D. None of these

199. The T-Twenty 2021 World Cup Champion is:

A. Pakistan
B. New Zealand
C. Australia
D. None of these

200. National Anthem of Pakistan was officially adopted in:

A. 1952
B. 1954
C. 1956
D. None of these

CSS Screening Test 2022 Orginal Papers

 

 

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FPSC CSS MPT Screening Test 2022 Past Paper MCQs

Here, you can find CSS MPT 2022 Screening Test Original Paper MCQs Answer keys uploaded by FPSC

 

SOLVED CSS Screening Test Today/ MPT screening Test For CSS 2022

Click here to Download CSS 2022 MPT FPSC CSS Screening Test with Answer Keys

 

 
Download in PDF FPSC Screening Test MCQs 2022 Paper without ANSWER KEYS

Download CSS Screening test from this FB Group link or From Google drive

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CSS MPT Answer Keys in PDF

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INSTRUCTIONS FOR CSS SCREENING TEST CANDIDATES From FPSC

• I. Candidates are informed that Answer Sheet comprises Two
  Sheets (Pink & Blue). On the conclusion of the examination Pink sheet is to be handed over to the
  invigilating staff. Candidates are allowed to retain Blue sheet for checking their scores.
  Answer Key will be uploaded on FPSC website on the eve of the examination.
• II. Candidates are advised to;

• (i) read MCQs from Questions Booklet and Fill in the appropriate box in the
  Answer Sheet.
• (ii) understand that, all MCQs have equal marks and there is no Negative Marking.
• (iii) avoid writing Roll Number, Name, answers to the questions or any other remark(s) on or
  inside Questions Booklet.
• (iv) handover Questions Booklet and Pink Answer Sheet to the duty invigilator on
  conclusion of examination.
• (v) take/retain Blue Answer Sheet on conclusion of examination.
• (vi) visit the FPSC website for Answer Key which will be made available on the eve of examination.
• (vii) avoid cutting / correction in the Answer Sheet. If candidate marks more than one
  option it will be considered as a wrong answer.
• (viii) Do not use lead pencil in the Answer Sheet. Use of ballpoint pen is advised. Avoid markers.

Note: Use of Calculator and electronic equipments such as Laptop, Mobile Phone / Cell phone,
Smart Watch, Bluetooth Devices, programmable devices and storage media like Pen drive
etc., during exam are STRICTLY PROHIBITED. Any infringement may lead to initiation of legal proceedings.

Click below to download the entire
CSS 2022 Solved MPT MCQs page in PDF

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